UPSC Intelligence · September 2025

GST
2.0:
Simpler India

Vol. I · September 2025 · PRS India · PIB · SEBI · Supreme Court · RBI

India's most consequential indirect tax reform since 2017 — the 56th GST Council collapses the four-tier rate structure into two slabs, exempts all life and health insurance, and resets the compliance architecture for 1.4 crore taxpayers.

0.2%CAD of GDP Q1
₹69,725 CrShipbuilding Package
Sep 22GST 2.0 Effective
10Topics Covered
Cover Story · Sep 2025

GS3 · Economy · Indirect Taxation · GST Council

56th GST Council: Four-Tier Structure → Two Slabs; Insurance Exempted; Effective September 22

The 56th GST Council meeting (September 3, 2025) approved the most significant restructuring of India's Goods and Services Tax since its 2017 launch. The existing four-tier structure (5%, 12%, 18%, 28%) was rationalised into two primary slabs: 5% and 18%, with a special 40% demerit rate for select goods. All individual life and health insurance policies are now fully exempted from GST. GST Appellate Tribunal operationalisation by end of September 2025 was also confirmed. Changes took effect from September 22, 2025.

⚡ Why It Matters — UPSC Lens

Structural shift from 4-tier to 2-tier directly impacts GS3 questions on cooperative federalism, revenue neutrality, and GST Council constitutional status (Article 279A).

Insurance GST exemption addresses a long-standing IRDA and Parliamentary Standing Committee recommendation — link to financial inclusion, household savings behaviour.

Demerit rate (40%) reflects the sin goods principle; risk-based provisional refunds address the inverted duty structure problem faced by exporters and manufacturers.

Source: PIB · Ministry of Finance · 56th GST Council · September 3, 2025

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Top 10 Most Important Topics — September 2025

  • 1

    56th GST Council: Rate Rationalisation — 4-tier Collapses to 2-slab; Insurance GST-Exempt

    PIB · Ministry of Finance · 5%+18%+40% demerit · Effective Sep 22 · GSTAT operationalised

    GS3 · EconomyHIGH
  • 2

    SC Stays Waqf (Amendment) Act 2025: 5-Year Islam Provision, Govt Property as Waqf, Non-Muslim Membership

    SC Civil Appeal No. 276/2025 · Sep 15 · Articles 14, 25, 26, 29 · Minority rights

    GS2 · PolityHIGH
  • 3

    Draft Civil Drone (Promotion and Regulation) Bill 2025: DGCA Registration, Airspace Zones, Motor Tribunal Liability

    MCA · Sep 16 · UAS ≤500 kg · Red/Yellow/Green zones · Emergency seizure powers

    GS3 · Sci-TechHIGH
  • 4

    National Policy on Geothermal Energy Notified

    MoNRE · Sep 15 · Single-window · Abandoned oil wells · 30-year site leases · 100% FDI

    GS3 · EnergyHIGH
  • 5

    Shipbuilding Package — ₹69,725 Crore; Maritime Development Fund ₹25,000 Cr; 30 Lakh Jobs

    Cabinet · Sep 24 · SBFAS extended to 2036 · Shipbuilding Dev Scheme ₹19,989 Cr

    GS3 · EconomyHIGH
  • 6

    SEBI SWAGAT-FI Framework: Single-Window Registration for Trusted Foreign Investors

    SEBI Board · Sep 12 · SWFs, central banks, multilateral agencies · 6-month implementation

    GS3 · FinanceMEDIUM
  • 7

    Critical Minerals Recycling Scheme — ₹1,500 Crore Over 6 Years

    Cabinet · Sep 3 · E-waste, Li-ion scrap, EOL vehicles · 1/3 reserved for startups

    GS3 · EnvironmentMEDIUM
  • 8

    India–Israel Bilateral Investment Agreement Signed

    PIB · Sep 8, 2025 · Expropriation safeguards · Independent arbitration · West Asia diplomacy

    GS2 · IRMEDIUM
  • 9

    Draft Telecom User Identification Rules 2025: Biometric BIVS, SIM Transfer Restricted

    DoT · Sep 12 · Mandatory Aadhaar auth · BIVS shared across telecom entities · Comments: Oct 19

    GS3 · Sci-TechMEDIUM
  • 10

    RBI Balance of Payments Q1 2025-26: CAD Narrows to 0.2% of GDP; Forex Reserves +$4.5 bn

    RBI · Sep 30 · CAD $2.4 bn · Capital account +$7.7 bn · Trade deficit $68.5 bn

    GS3 · EconomyMEDIUM

📊 Key Data Points — September 2025

0.2%
India's Current Account Deficit as % of GDP in Q1 2025-26 (USD 2.4 billion); down from 0.9% in Q1 2024-25
₹25,000 Cr
Maritime Development Fund (investment fund ₹20,000 Cr + interest incentive ₹5,000 Cr) for shipbuilding
Sep 22
Date from which revised GST rate structure (5% + 18% + 40% demerit) came into effect
₹1,500 Cr
Critical Minerals Recycling Scheme outlay over 6 years (FY2025-26 to 2030-31); 1/3 for startups
500 kg
Maximum weight limit defining an "unmanned aircraft" under Draft Civil Drone Bill 2025 (autonomous or remotely operated)
USD 7.7 bn
Capital account net inflow in Q1 2025-26; turnaround from -USD 5.4 bn outflow in Q4 2024-25
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Economy & Finance

GS3 · 3 Topics
GS3 · Economy · TaxationGS2 · FederalismPrelims 2026: HIGHPYQ: GST Council 2018, 2021, 2022

56th GST Council: Four-Tier Rate Structure Rationalised to Two Slabs (5% & 18%); All Insurance Policies GST-Exempt; Effective September 22, 2025

The 56th GST Council meeting (New Delhi, September 3, 2025) approved the most consequential restructuring of India's GST since its July 2017 launch. The existing four-tier structure (5%, 12%, 18%, 28%) was collapsed into two primary rates: 5% (essential goods) and 18% (standard rate), with a 40% demerit rate replacing the earlier 28% slab for sin goods and luxury items. Key rate reductions were approved on consumer non-durables (shampoos, soaps, toothbrushes), consumer durables (TVs, ACs, small cars, motorcycles), medicines and medical equipment, and renewable energy devices. All individual life and health insurance policies were fully exempted from GST — addressing a major policy demand. Risk-based provisional GST refunds for inverted duty structures were approved. GST registration simplified for small and low-risk businesses. The GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) was confirmed for operationalisation by end of September 2025. All changes became effective September 22, 2025.

F156th GST Council meeting: Sep 3, 2025, New Delhi. New structure: 5% (essentials), 18% (standard), 40% (demerit goods)
F2All individual life and health insurance policies: fully exempted from GST (100% GST removal)
F3Inverted duty structure: when input tax rate > output tax rate, creating unutilised input tax credit. Risk-based provisional refunds now approved
F4GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT): established under CGST (Amendment) Act 2023; operationalised by end Sep 2025; single national bench + state benches
F5GST Council: Article 279A body; chaired by Union Finance Minister; 1/3 voting share for Centre, 2/3 for States combined; recommendations not binding (SC, 2022)
The collapse from 4-tier to 2-tier was recommended by the GST Council's Rate Rationalisation Committee (2022) — a 3-year journey to implementation. Analyse whether a two-rate structure adequately serves the dual GST objectives of revenue neutrality and progressivity (essential goods vs luxury goods).
Insurance GST exemption directly affects household savings behaviour: India's insurance penetration is only 4.2% of GDP (vs global average 7%). Removing the 18% GST on premiums could improve uptake, particularly for health insurance in the context of Ayushman Bharat's coverage gaps.
The inverted duty structure problem (raw material tax > finished goods tax) has plagued export-oriented sectors (textiles, leather). Risk-based provisional refunds address the cash-flow crisis for MSMEs — examine why the design of GST refund mechanisms matters for export competitiveness under WTO's SCM Agreement.
The operationalisation of GSTAT ends 8 years of GST dispute resolution vacuum. Pre-GSTAT, taxpayers were forced to approach High Courts directly — creating litigation explosion. GSTAT has a dual role: reducing HC burden and building GST jurisprudence as authoritative precedent.
GST Council is a unique federalism institution — decisions require consensus (typically) but the 2022 SC ruling (Mohit Minerals) clarified recommendations are not binding. The rate rationalisation shows collaborative cooperative federalism in practice: States agreed to forego revenue in the long-term interest of economic simplification.

Prelims MCQ

After the 56th GST Council's rate rationalisation (September 2025), the new demerit/sin goods GST rate applicable to luxury items is: (a) 28% (b) 35% (c) 40% (d) 45%

Answer: (c) 40% — The 28% slab has been replaced by a 40% demerit rate for select luxury/sin goods

Mains 15 Marker (GS3)

The 56th GST Council's rate rationalisation represents India's most significant indirect tax reform since 2017. Critically evaluate whether the shift to a two-rate GST structure will achieve its objectives of simplification, revenue neutrality, and fairness, with special reference to the treatment of essential goods, insurance, and the inverted duty structure problem.

GS Paper 3 · 15 Marks · 250 Words

📚 Static NCERT Linkage

NCERT Class 12 Economics — Government Budget; Indirect Taxes; Article 279A (GST Council); 101st Constitutional Amendment Act 2016; CGST Act 2017; Destination-based consumption tax principle; cooperative federalism. GST Council composition, voting thresholds, Mohit Minerals SC ruling (2022).

GS3 · Economy · Capital MarketsPrelims 2026: MEDIUMPYQ: SEBI 2019, 2022; BoP 2020

SEBI SWAGAT-FI Unified Registration Framework Approved; RBI BoP Q1 2025-26: CAD Narrows Sharply to 0.2% of GDP

SEBI's September 12 board meeting approved two significant capital market reforms: (1) SWAGAT-FI (Single Window Automatic and Generalised Access for Trusted Foreign Investors) — a unified registration framework for central banks, sovereign wealth funds, multilateral agencies, and certain Public Retail Funds, enabling access across multiple investment routes with minimised compliance duplication. Implementation within 6 months. (2) Revised MPO (Minimum Public Offer) and MPS (Minimum Public Shareholding) thresholds — large company IPOs will have lowered MPO requirements; MPS compliance timeline extended from 5 to 10 years for some large-cap companies. The 35% retail quota in IPOs remains unchanged. Separately, RBI's September 30 release confirmed India's Current Account Deficit narrowed sharply to USD 2.4 billion (0.2% of GDP) in Q1 2025-26, down from USD 8.6 billion (0.9%) in Q1 2024-25. Capital account recorded a net inflow of USD 7.7 billion, a strong turnaround from the USD 5.4 billion outflow in Q4 2024-25.

F1SWAGAT-FI: eligible investors — central banks, sovereign wealth funds, multilateral development agencies, certain Public Retail Funds
F2MPO (Minimum Public Offer): portion of shares offered to public at IPO time. MPS (Minimum Public Shareholding): post-listing public holding ≥25%. 35% retail quota unchanged
F3SEBI amended RPT (Related Party Transactions) thresholds under SEBI LODR Regulations 2015 — codified omnibus approval validity periods for repetitive transactions
F4Q1 2025-26 BoP: Current account deficit = USD 2.4 bn (0.2% GDP); Capital account = +USD 7.7 bn net inflow; Forex reserves = +USD 4.5 bn
F5Trade deficit Q1 2025-26: USD 68.5 bn (exports $113.1 bn, imports $181.6 bn); Net services: +$47.9 bn; Net transfers: +$18.2 bn
SWAGAT-FI addresses the fragmented FPI registration regime where a single sovereign wealth fund needed separate registrations as FPI, FDI, and infrastructure investor — multiplying compliance costs. This regulatory friction deterred long-term capital; SWAGAT-FI aims to make India as accessible as Singapore or UK for institutional capital.
The CAD narrowing from 0.9% to 0.2% of GDP reflects India's structural improvement in the services trade balance (+$47.9 bn) driven by IT, financial services, and remittances — these are more stable than merchandise exports. Analyse how the composition of CAD determines its sustainability.
Capital account swinging from -$5.4 bn (Q4 FY25) to +$7.7 bn (Q1 FY26) reflects renewed FDI inflows and portfolio flows — link to the IMF's assessment that India remains the world's fastest-growing major economy in 2025, and the impact of RBI's 125 bps rate cut cycle on capital flow dynamics.

Prelims MCQ

The SEBI SWAGAT-FI framework (September 2025) provides unified registration to which of the following? 1. Central Banks 2. Sovereign Wealth Funds 3. Multilateral Development Agencies 4. Foreign Retail Individual Investors. Select the correct answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only — Individual retail foreign investors are not included; it covers "trusted" institutional investors only

📚 Static NCERT Linkage

NCERT Class 12 Macroeconomics — Balance of Payments; Current Account (trade + services + transfers), Capital Account (FDI, FPI, ECB). GS3 UPSC: SEBI, FPI regulations, capital account convertibility, India's BoP management, forex reserves. FEMA 1999 linkage.

GS3 · Environment · EconomyGS3 · Critical MineralsPrelims 2026: MEDIUM

Critical Minerals Recycling Scheme Approved — ₹1,500 Crore; E-Waste, Li-Ion Battery Scrap, EOL Vehicle Catalysts; One-Third Reserved for Startups

The Union Cabinet approved the Incentive Scheme for Promotion of Critical Minerals Recycling under the National Critical Mineral Mission (September 3, 2025). Total financial outlay: ₹1,500 crore over 6 years (FY2025-26 to FY2030-31). One-third of the outlay is reserved for startups. Eligible feedstock: e-waste, lithium-ion battery scrap, and other scrap such as catalytic converters from end-of-life (EOL) vehicles. Eligibility conditions: recycling facilities must be authorised by Central or State Pollution Control Boards and registered under applicable Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) Rules. Incentive structure: 20% capital expenditure subsidy on plant, machinery, equipment, and utilities; operational expenditure subsidy on incremental sales over base year (40% paid in Year 2, 60% in Year 5 upon reaching threshold sales). Incentive cap: ₹50 crore for large entities, ₹25 crore for small entities. The scheme targets the recycling of cobalt, lithium, nickel, graphite, and rare earth elements from domestic waste streams.

F1Outlay: ₹1,500 Cr over 6 years (FY26–31); 1/3 reserved for startups; capex subsidy 20% on P&M&E&U
F2Eligible feedstock: e-waste, Li-ion battery scrap, catalytic converters from EOL vehicles
F3Must be authorised by Central/State PCB + registered under EPR Rules to be eligible
F4Incentive cap: ₹50 Cr for large; ₹25 Cr for small; opex subsidy split: 40% in Year 2, 60% in Year 5
F5National Critical Mineral Mission launched Jan 2025; covers 30 critical minerals including Li, Co, Ni, graphite, REE; KABIL handles overseas sourcing
Urban mining (recycling critical minerals from e-waste) is increasingly cost-competitive with primary mining — India generates 1.6 million tonnes of e-waste annually (5th largest globally) but formal recycling rate is below 10%. This scheme creates an economic incentive for formal sector dominance over the unorganised recycling industry.
The EPR (Extended Producer Responsibility) registration requirement links the recycling scheme to India's Hazardous and Other Wastes Management Rules 2016 and Battery Waste Management Rules 2022 — creating a circular economy loop: EV batteries → formal recycling → critical mineral recovery → EV battery manufacturing.
Reserving 1/3 of scheme outlay for startups acknowledges that innovation in hydrometallurgical and pyrometallurgical recovery processes is driven by early-stage firms. Link to Startup India framework and India's ambition to build indigenous battery technology capability under the PLI Advanced Chemistry Cell scheme.

Prelims MCQ

Under the Critical Minerals Recycling Scheme (September 2025), which of the following is an eligible feedstock? 1. E-waste 2. Lithium-ion battery scrap 3. Coal fly ash 4. Catalytic converters from end-of-life vehicles. Select the correct answer: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only — Coal fly ash is not a critical mineral feedstock under this scheme

📚 Static NCERT Linkage

NCERT Class 12 Physics — Semiconductors; GS3: Critical minerals, circular economy, e-waste management, Battery Waste Management Rules 2022, E-Waste Management Rules 2016, Extended Producer Responsibility, National Critical Mineral Mission 2025, KABIL. SDG 12 (Responsible Consumption and Production).

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Governance & Constitution

GS2 · 2 Topics
GS2 · Polity · JudiciaryGS2 · Minority RightsPrelims 2026: HIGHPYQ: Waqf 2021; Minority Rights 2018

SC Interim Stay on Waqf (Amendment) Act 2025: Five-Year Islam Practice Provision, Government Property Inquiry, and Non-Muslim Council Representation Stayed

A two-judge bench of the Supreme Court (Civil Appeal No. 276 of 2025, September 15, 2025) granted an interim order staying three specific provisions of the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, while rejecting a prayer for a complete stay. The Court's key directions: (1) Declaration of waqf — the amendment's requirement that only a person practicing Islam for at least 5 years may declare a waqf was stayed pending framing of state rules to verify the practice period. In the absence of any procedure, this provision cannot take effect. (2) Government property as waqf — the provision that a government property identified as waqf shall cease to be waqf until an inquiry officer submits a report was stayed as "arbitrary." (3) Non-Muslim membership in Waqf Council — the Court directed that the Central Waqf Council should not have more than 4 non-Muslim members out of 22, and Waqf Boards should not have more than 3 non-Muslim members out of 11. Additionally, the Court recommended that the CEO of Waqf Boards be appointed from the Muslim community.

F1SC (2-judge bench) stayed 3 provisions of Waqf Amendment Act 2025: Islamic practice duration, govt property inquiry, non-Muslim membership
F2Central Waqf Council (22 members): SC direction — not more than 4 non-Muslim members; Waqf Boards (11 members): not more than 3 non-Muslims
F3Provision stayed as "arbitrary": property ceases to be waqf until inquiry officer submits report — violates Art. 14
F4Waqf: religious endowment in Islamic law for charitable/pious purposes; once declared waqf, property is inalienable (waqf-alal-aulad); governed by Waqf Act 1995
F5Constitutional provisions invoked: Articles 14 (equality), 25 (freedom of religion), 26 (religious denominational rights), 29, 30 (minority educational institutions)
The SC's partial stay (3 provisions, not entire Act) demonstrates judicial parsimony — courts prefer surgical intervention over sweeping stays. This preserves the legislative intent while protecting fundamental rights pending a full constitutional bench hearing.
The "5-year practice" provision raises a profound question: can the State define who is a practising member of a faith for purposes of religious endowment? Article 26 guarantees religious denominations the right to manage their own affairs — imposing a state-defined practice threshold could constitute a violation of this self-governance right.
The government property inquiry provision (property ceases waqf pending inquiry) reverses the presumption in favour of religious property rights — examine under the broader debate about the balance between State's eminent domain and minority property rights (linked to the Places of Worship Act 1991 context).
Non-Muslim membership in a religious body's governance structure raises questions of denominational self-governance under Article 26(b) — compare with earlier SC ruling in TMA Pai Foundation (2002) on minority educational institutions' administration rights.
The Waqf Amendment's journey — introduced April 2025 (Rajya Sabha sat until 4 am), contested in 50+ petitions, now before SC — illustrates the constitutional stress points of majoritarian legislation in a pluralistic democracy. Examine under Article 370's abrogation jurisprudence (Supreme Court, 2023) for comparative constitutional framework.

Prelims MCQ

The Supreme Court's interim order on the Waqf (Amendment) Act 2025 (September 2025) included which of the following directions? 1. Complete stay on the Act 2. Stay on the provision requiring 5 years of Islamic practice to declare waqf 3. Cap of 4 non-Muslim members on the 22-member Central Waqf Council 4. Suspension of all Waqf Board elections. Select the correct answer: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only — The Court rejected complete stay; there were no election suspension orders

Mains 15 Marker (GS2)

The Supreme Court's interim stay on provisions of the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 raises fundamental constitutional questions about State intervention in minority religious affairs. Critically examine the constitutional provisions governing minority rights in India and evaluate whether the Waqf Amendment's key provisions are consistent with Articles 25, 26, and 14 of the Constitution.

GS Paper 2 · 15 Marks · 250 Words

📚 Static NCERT Linkage

NCERT Pol. Sci. Class 11 — Rights in Indian Constitution; Articles 14, 25, 26, 29, 30; Waqf Act 1995; Waqf (Amendment) Act 2013; Central Waqf Council; Sachar Committee Report 2006. GS2: Minority rights, judicial review, religious denominational rights. TMA Pai (2002), SP Mittal (1983) on religion.

GS2 · Electoral SystemGS2 · GovernancePrelims 2026: MEDIUMPYQ: ECI, Electoral Rolls 2019

SC Directs ECI to Accept Aadhaar as Proof of Identity in Bihar Special Intensive Revision of Voter List; Section 23(4) RPA 1950 Applied

A two-judge Supreme Court bench (September 8, 2025) directed the Election Commission of India (ECI) to accept Aadhaar Card as a proof of identity in the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of Bihar's electoral roll. The SIR exercise was initiated to ensure all eligible citizens are enrolled. The Court held that under Section 23(4) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, Aadhaar is one of the enumerated documents for identification. However, the Court clarified that authorities can seek further proof to verify Aadhaar's authenticity. This ruling resolves a practical dispute where ECI's SIR guidelines had not explicitly included Aadhaar — given that millions of Bihar residents lack other standard ID documents, the exclusion risked disenfranchisement.

F1Section 23(4) of RPA 1950: provides for voluntary linking of Aadhaar with voter ID; Aadhaar is listed as a valid identification document for electoral roll purposes
F2Special Intensive Revision (SIR): ECI exercise to comprehensively update electoral rolls; different from summary revision (periodic correction)
F3SC clarification: Aadhaar acceptable but authorities may seek additional verification; Aadhaar alone not conclusive proof of citizenship
F4Aadhaar: 12-digit biometric ID under Aadhaar Act 2016 (upheld by SC in Puttaswamy II with restrictions); administered by UIDAI
F5Bihar voter rolls: Bihar Assembly has 243 seats; SIR 2025 is ahead of Bihar Assembly elections; electoral roll accuracy directly impacts franchise exercise
The Court's ruling balances two competing concerns: (1) voter roll accuracy requiring authentic identification, and (2) inclusion risk where rigid ID requirements can exclude marginalised citizens who lack documents. Aadhaar's universal coverage (1.3 billion enrollees) makes it practically the most inclusive identity document in India.
Aadhaar was earlier struck down as mandatory for voter registration (Puttaswamy II, 2018) — its voluntary use for voter roll purposes under Section 23(4) was added by the Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021. The SC's September 2025 direction reinforces this statutory provision in operational terms.

Prelims MCQ

Under which provision of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 was the Supreme Court's September 2025 direction on Aadhaar as identity proof for Bihar voter rolls grounded? (a) Section 16 (b) Section 19 (c) Section 23(4) (d) Section 62

Answer: (c) Section 23(4) — this provision allows Aadhaar linkage to electoral rolls as a voluntary identification measure

📚 Static NCERT Linkage

NCERT Pol. Sci. Class 11 — Elections; Representation of People Act 1950 & 1951; Article 326 (universal adult suffrage); ECI as constitutional body (Article 324); Aadhaar Act 2016. GS2: Electoral reforms, voter registration, franchise, ECI powers, Election Laws Amendment Act 2021.

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Science, Tech & Telecom

GS3 · 2 Topics
GS3 · Sci-Tech · AviationGS2 · GovernancePrelims 2026: HIGHPYQ: Drones/UAV 2021, 2022

Draft Civil Drone (Promotion and Regulation) Bill 2025: DGCA Registration Mandatory for All UAS ≤500 kg; Red-Yellow-Green Airspace Zones; Motor Tribunal Liability Framework

The Ministry of Civil Aviation released the draft Civil Drone (Promotion and Regulation) Bill, 2025 for public feedback (September 16, 2025). The Bill seeks to replace the existing Unmanned Aircraft Systems Rules, 2021. Key features: (1) Regulation — All UAS up to 500 kg must register with DGCA; assembly/manufacturing requires DGCA certificate; mandatory safety and security features as specified by central government. (2) Airspace — Central government publishes an airspace map dividing space into red (restricted, needs central government permission), yellow (needs ATC permission), and green (no mandatory permissions). State governments and central agencies can notify red zones; temporary red zones can be declared. (3) Liability — UAS operation requires third-party insurance; claims adjudicated by Motor Accident Claims Tribunals; appeals to High Courts. (4) Emergency — Government can cancel/suspend certificates, prohibit UAS operations, and direct delivery of UAS for public service in interests of security and sovereignty.

F1UAS definition: ≤500 kg aircraft that is autonomous or remotely operated; includes aircraft + remote pilot station + control links
F2Airspace zones: Red (central govt permission needed), Yellow (ATC permission needed), Green (no mandatory permission)
F3Violations of airspace restrictions/misuse: cognisable offences; mandatory third-party insurance required
F4Claims from UAS accidents: adjudicated by Motor Accident Claims Tribunals (MACT); appeals to High Courts
F5Previous framework: UAS Rules 2021 (under Aircraft Act 1934). 2021 Rules introduced digital sky platform, DigitalSky for drone registration. New Bill provides statutory basis
The Bill upgrades drone regulation from subordinate rules (UAS Rules 2021) to primary legislation — giving it statutory force, democratic accountability through Parliament, and clearer legal standing for enforcement. This is consistent with the Drone Policy 2.0 direction of India becoming a global drone hub by 2030.
The three-zone airspace system mirrors the ICAO framework and allows India to harmonise with international aviation norms — critical for commercial drone delivery corridors (Amazon, Zomato), precision agriculture drones (used in Kisan Drone programme), and drone-based survey operations.
Using Motor Accident Claims Tribunals for drone liability is a pragmatic legislative choice — it leverages existing judicial infrastructure and the body of case law on no-fault accident liability under the Motor Vehicles Act. But it raises conceptual tension: aviation accidents under international law (Warsaw/Montreal Convention) have different liability principles than motor vehicles.
Emergency seizure powers (cancel, prohibit, deliver UAS) without explicit judicial review mechanisms raises Article 21 and due process concerns — examine against standards of proportionality review in national security contexts (compare with CAA 1994, IT Act Section 69A internet blocking).

Prelims MCQ

Under the Draft Civil Drone (Promotion and Regulation) Bill, 2025, which type of airspace zone requires permission from the concerned Air Traffic Control authority? (a) Red Zone (b) Yellow Zone (c) Green Zone (d) Blue Zone

Answer: (b) Yellow Zone — Red zone needs central government permission; Green zone has no mandatory permissions; Blue zone is not a category in the Bill

Mains 10 Marker (GS3)

The Draft Civil Drone (Promotion and Regulation) Bill 2025 marks a transition from rules-based to legislation-based governance of civilian unmanned aircraft systems in India. Examine the key features of the proposed framework and its implications for India's ambition to become a global drone hub by 2030.

GS Paper 3 · 10 Marks · 150 Words

📚 Static NCERT Linkage

GS3: UAS technology, India's drone ecosystem (PLI Drone Scheme 2022), DGCA, Drone Policy 2.0, precision agriculture, Kisan Drone Yojana; Aircraft Act 1934; ICAO standards; national airspace management. Articles 19(1)(g) for commercial drone operators.

GS3 · Sci-Tech · TelecomGS2 · Rights · GovernancePrelims 2026: MEDIUMPYQ: Privacy, Surveillance 2021, 2023

Draft Telecom User Identification Rules 2025: Mandatory Biometric BIVS, SIM Transfer Restricted to Blood Relatives; Interception Amendment Adds Union Home Secretary Powers

The Department of Telecommunications released two key instruments in September 2025. (1) Draft Telecommunications (User Identification) Rules, 2025 (September 12) — creates a biometric identification framework for all telecom users. New subscribers must complete Aadhaar authentication; non-Aadhaar users undergo digital KYC with live photograph. Every authorised telecom entity must individually or collectively create and maintain a Biometric Identity Verification System (BIVS) — stored photographs/biometrics shared across authorised telecom entities for real-time verification. SIM transfers permitted only to blood relatives or legal heirs, subject to re-verification. Comments invited until October 19. (2) Telecom (Procedures and Safeguards for Lawful Interception of Messages) Amendment Rules, 2025 — adds that the Union Home Secretary may issue interception orders for requests made by state governments beyond their territorial jurisdiction, upon request by the state home secretary. Also reduces nodal officer requirement from two to "one or more."

F1BIVS: shared database of live biometric photographs across all authorised telecom entities; real-time cross-entity verification enabled
F2SIM transfer permitted only to: blood relatives OR legal heirs; subject to identity re-verification; all other SIM transfers prohibited
F3Business connections: end-user can be changed if authorised representative informs telecom immediately; identification of new user within 7 days
F4Interception orders: Union Home Secretary + Secretary in charge of state home department (existing); Amendment adds Union Home Secretary power for cross-territorial state requests
F5Legal basis: Telecommunications Act 2023 (replaced Indian Telegraph Act 1885); Telecom Rules 2024; Puttaswamy II right to privacy (Art. 21); proportionality test for surveillance
BIVS creates a biometric surveillance infrastructure that links telecom identity to a shared cross-entity database — this raises a proportionality question under Puttaswamy II: is mandatory biometric collection for telecom access proportionate to the stated purpose of preventing SIM fraud and cybercrime?
Restricting SIM transfers to blood relatives/legal heirs is a direct response to SIM swap fraud (used in financial cyber frauds, deepfake SIM fraud). However, it creates hardship for legitimate cases like employees transferring corporate connections — the operational exemption addresses this but monitoring compliance is challenging.
The interception amendment expanding the Union Home Secretary's power to territorial cross-state situations is constitutionally complex — telecom is in the Union List (Entry 31), but law enforcement powers have federal dimensions. Does expanding Centre's interception reach into state-territory situations impinge on states' exclusive law enforcement domains?

Prelims MCQ

Under the Draft Telecommunications (User Identification) Rules, 2025, the Biometric Identity Verification System (BIVS) will: (a) Be maintained solely by UIDAI (b) Be shared across all authorised telecom entities for real-time verification (c) Store data exclusively with the Department of Telecommunications (d) Apply only to new subscribers from 2026

Answer: (b) Maintained by each telecom entity individually or collectively; shared across authorised entities for real-time verification

📚 Static NCERT Linkage

Telecommunications Act 2023; Article 21 (right to privacy — Puttaswamy 2017); GS3: Digital identity, cybersecurity, SIM fraud; GS2: Surveillance law, proportionality principle, rights-regulation balance; Union List Entry 31 (telegraphs, telephones); DPDP Act 2023 interface with BIVS data.

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Environment & Energy

GS3 · 2 Topics
GS3 · Energy · EnvironmentPrelims 2026: HIGHPYQ: Renewable Energy 2020, 2022

National Policy on Geothermal Energy Notified: Abandoned Oil/Gas Wells to Plants, Single-Window Clearances, 30-Year Site Leases, 100% FDI

The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MoNRE) notified India's first National Policy on Geothermal Energy (September 15, 2025). The policy promotes exploration, development, and utilisation of geothermal energy for power generation AND direct-use applications (ground source heat pumps, cold storage, district heating). Key features: MoNRE will prioritise conversion of abandoned oil, gas, and mineral wells into geothermal plants through joint ventures with oil/gas/mineral companies. State governments will designate nodal agencies for single-window clearances and land leases. Sites allocated for exploration: 3 years + 2-year extension; additional 2-year extension for high-altitude areas. Sites for development: up to 30 years. Financial support: central government will explore concessional loans, import duty exemptions on geothermal equipment, and property tax exemptions for geothermal users. MoNRE's R&T Development Programme already funds geothermal research. 100% FDI is permitted (as in all renewables). Centres of Excellence for Geothermal Energy to be established for technology support and international collaboration.

F1Geothermal energy: heat from Earth's interior; India's geothermal provinces — Himalayan (Puga, Chhumathang in Ladakh), Cambay Basin, Deccan Plateau, West Coast
F2Direct-use applications: ground source heat pumps, cold storage, district heating (non-power generation uses)
F3Site lease duration: exploration — 3+2 years; development — up to 30 years; high-altitude areas: additional 2-year exploration extension
F4Abandoned oil/gas well conversion: MoNRE priority — reduces drilling costs; ONGC and Oil India have identified ~350+ abandoned wells suitable for geothermal conversion
F5Geological risk sharing: central government will explore mechanisms to share geological risks with developers — addresses the high-cost, high-uncertainty early-stage exploration problem
Geothermal is the only renewable that provides 24x7 baseload power — unlike solar (diurnal) and wind (intermittent). India's current renewable challenge is precisely this gap: the inability to provide firm, dispatchable power from renewables. Geothermal could be a game-changer for states like Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand where high-altitude geography makes solar storage expensive.
The abandoned well repurposing strategy is economically brilliant — drilling costs constitute 50-70% of geothermal project costs. Using existing infrastructure from ONGC/OIL can halve project economics. Link to ONGC's strategic pivot from fossil fuel extraction to clean energy under its Net Zero 2038 commitment.
The single-window clearance mechanism for geothermal is India's attempt to replicate Iceland's geothermal success (meets 65% of Iceland's primary energy). India's policy adopts a "pull" approach — addressing supply-side barriers (exploration risk, regulatory friction, financing) rather than just demand-side push.
Geothermal direct-use (heat pumps, cold storage) could transform India's cold chain infrastructure — India loses 25-30% of agricultural produce due to inadequate cold storage. Geothermal cold storage in Ladakh, Himachal (potato belt), and Uttarakhand could directly address post-harvest losses and farmer income.

Prelims MCQ

With reference to the National Policy on Geothermal Energy (September 2025), consider the following statements: 1. Sites may be allocated for geothermal development for up to 30 years. 2. The policy prioritises conversion of abandoned coal mines into geothermal plants. 3. Geothermal energy has both power generation and direct-use applications. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only — Statement 2 is wrong; the policy prioritises abandoned OIL and GAS wells, not coal mines

Mains 10 Marker (GS3)

India's first National Policy on Geothermal Energy (2025) represents a strategic move to harness baseload renewable energy. Discuss the potential of geothermal energy in India's energy transition, its applications beyond electricity generation, and the key challenges that this policy seeks to address.

GS Paper 3 · 10 Marks · 150 Words

📚 Static NCERT Linkage

NCERT Class 10 Geography — Resources and Development (energy resources); NCERT Class 8 Geography — Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife; GS3: Non-conventional energy, India's renewable energy targets (500 GW by 2030), National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), National Solar Mission. SDG 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy).

⚡ Energy & Resource Policy Tracker — September 2025

Electricity (Amendment) Rules 2025

Energy Storage Systems — Expanded Ownership

MoP notified Electricity (Amendment) Rules 2025 (Sep 19): End-use consumers added as eligible ESS owners/operators alongside gencos, transmission/distribution licensees, and independent ESS providers. ESS owners can now also sell energy storage services directly to consumers (not just utilities and Load Despatch Centres). Enables distributed storage model — prosumers, industrial captive users, commercial buildings can invest in ESS for arbitrage and resilience.

Draft OSHWC Code Rules

7 Worker Category Rules Released — Comments by Nov 6

Ministry of Labour released 7 draft rules under the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (OSHWC) Code 2020 (Sep 22). Categories: Dock Workers, Mine Workers, Motor Transport Workers, Plantation Workers, Beedi Workers, Construction Workers, and Factory Workers. Rules specify employer duties for safe conditions, welfare officers, first aid, crèche, canteen, drinking water, and protection from harmful substances. Comments invited until November 6, 2025.

RBI Monetary Policy Framework Review

Discussion Paper — 4% ± 2% Inflation Target Under Review

RBI released a discussion paper on "Review of Monetary Policy Framework" (comments invited by Sep 18, 2025). The current framework (since 2016): 4% CPI target with 2-6% band. The paper examined: fixed target vs range-based targeting (4-6%, 3-6%); headline vs core inflation as target measure; appropriateness of tolerance band. Key finding: headline inflation remained within band 75% of time in First Review Period, 67% in Second Period. RBI noted range targeting may weaken credibility.

India–Australia Organic Products MRA

Under India-Australia ECTA — Sep 24, 2025

India and Australia signed a Mutual Recognition Arrangement (MRA) for organic products under the India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA). Covered: unprocessed plant products, processed food of plant origin, and organic wine. Both countries will recognise each other's organic standards and certification systems. India's organic exports to Australia: USD 8.96 million in FY2024-25. Promotes certified organic agriculture — key for India's farmers in Sikkim (100% organic) and NE states.

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International Relations

GS2 · 1 Topic
GS2 · IR · West AsiaGS3 · TradePrelims 2026: MEDIUMPYQ: India-West Asia 2020; BIA 2022

India–Israel Bilateral Investment Agreement Signed (September 8): Expropriation Safeguards, Transparency, Independent Arbitration for Investor Disputes

India and Israel signed a Bilateral Investment Agreement (BIA) in New Delhi on September 8, 2025. Unlike a Free Trade Agreement, a BIA specifically governs cross-border investment flows rather than goods/services trade. Key provisions: (1) Safeguards against expropriation — investments cannot be nationalised/expropriated without due process, prompt compensation at fair market value, and non-discriminatory treatment. (2) Transparency — investors entitled to clear, publicly available information about laws governing their investments. (3) Smooth transfers — free repatriation of profits, dividends, interest, and capital (subject to laws on taxation, bankruptcy, and securities). (4) Compensation for losses — investments affected by war, civil strife, or emergency situations eligible for compensation or restitution. (5) Independent dispute resolution — investor-state disputes through independent international arbitration. Note: India-Israel FTA (goods/services/investment) Terms of Reference were signed separately in November 2025. The September BIA covers only investment protection.

F1BIA (Bilateral Investment Agreement): treaty protecting cross-border investments (not trade); key protections — non-expropriation, fair treatment, free transfer, dispute resolution
F2India's BIA/BIT program: India had ~83 Bilateral Investment Treaties; terminated most in 2017 after adverse ISDS awards; Model BIT 2016 adopted with higher state regulatory space
F3India-Israel bilateral trade FY2024-25: ~USD 7.5 billion; sectors: diamonds, chemicals, defence, agri-tech, cybersecurity
F4I2U2 Group (India-Israel-UAE-USA): joint investments in food, water, energy, health; formed July 2022; BIA with Israel deepens I2U2 investment pillar
F5ISDS (Investor-State Dispute Settlement): international arbitration mechanism in BITs/BIAs allowing investors to sue states — India was second most-sued state globally under ISDS (2017 data)
India's BIA with Israel signals a return to investment treaty-making after a 2017-2025 pause following India's BIT terminations. India's Model BIT 2016 emphasises regulatory freedom and limits ISDS — the India-Israel BIA likely incorporates these provisions. How does India balance investor protection with the sovereign right to regulate in public interest?
Israel's comparative advantage is in cybersecurity (Unit 8200 alumni ecosystem), drip irrigation, and agri-tech — sectors with strategic relevance for India. BIA protections on free transfer and compensation for losses reduce the risk premium for Israeli tech companies investing in India, potentially unlocking technology-intensive FDI.
India-Israel BIA during ongoing Gaza conflict demonstrates India's strategic autonomy — India maintained relations with Israel for economic/technological reasons while taking independent positions in UN on Gaza ceasefire. Examine the foreign policy principle of "dehyphenation" — treating relations with Israel independently of India-Palestine and India-Arab world relations.

Prelims MCQ

A Bilateral Investment Agreement (BIA) primarily covers: (a) Exchange of goods and services between two countries (b) Protection of cross-border investments from expropriation, unfair treatment, and provides dispute settlement (c) Military cooperation and joint exercises between two countries (d) Double taxation avoidance arrangements

Answer: (b) BIA/BIT covers investment protection; FTAs cover trade in goods/services; DTAAs cover double taxation; defence agreements cover military cooperation

📚 Static NCERT Linkage

NCERT Pol. Sci. Class 12 — India's Foreign Policy; GS2: West Asia policy, I2U2 Group, India's BIT program, ISDS, Model BIT 2016; GS3: FDI policy, FEMA 1999, investment treaties. Abraham Accords (2020) context for India-Israel-UAE triangle.

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Infrastructure & Maritime

GS3 · September 2025
GS3 · Economy · MaritimePrelims 2026: HIGH

Comprehensive Shipbuilding Package — ₹69,725 Crore: Maritime Development Fund ₹25,000 Cr, SBFAS Extended to 2036, Shipbuilding Development Scheme ₹19,989 Cr; 4.5 mn GT Capacity Target

The Union Cabinet approved a multi-pillar shipbuilding and maritime package (September 24, 2025) with a combined financial outlay of ₹69,725 crore. Four pillars: (1) Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Scheme (SBFAS) — approved in 2015, extended to March 31, 2036; outlay ₹24,736 crore; provides financial assistance to Indian shipyards to bridge the cost gap with international competitors. (2) Maritime Development Fund (MDF) — ₹25,000 crore (investment fund ₹20,000 Cr + interest incentivisation fund ₹5,000 Cr to reduce cost of debt); provides long-term financing to the sector. (3) Shipbuilding Development Scheme — ₹19,989 crore; supports mega shipbuilding clusters, infrastructure expansion, and provides insurance. The package targets: expanding domestic shipbuilding capacity to 4.5 million gross tonnage (GT) per annum, attracting investments of ₹4.5 lakh crore in the maritime sector, and generating 30 lakh employment opportunities.

F1SBFAS extended to 2036 · Outlay ₹24,736 Cr · Bridges cost gap between Indian and foreign shipyards
F2Maritime Development Fund: ₹25,000 Cr total (₹20,000 Cr investment + ₹5,000 Cr interest incentive to lower debt cost)
F3Shipbuilding Development Scheme: ₹19,989 Cr · mega clusters, infrastructure, insurance
F4Targets: 4.5 million GT/year capacity; ₹4.5 lakh Cr investments; 30 lakh jobs (maritime sector)
F5India's current shipbuilding share: <1% global market; China, South Korea, Japan dominate (collectively >90%). India's goal: 5% global share by 2030 (Maritime India Vision 2030)
India owns 1,400+ ships but builds <1% globally — an import-dependent maritime sector for a nation with 7,500 km coastline and ambitions of becoming a maritime power is a strategic vulnerability. The shipbuilding package addresses this with both demand-side financial assistance (SBFAS) and supply-side infrastructure (Shipbuilding Development Scheme).
The Maritime Development Fund (MDF) solves the financing paradox: shipbuilding is capital-intensive with long gestation periods (3-5 years) but India's banking system historically avoided long-tenor maritime financing. MDF's interest incentivisation component brings effective cost of capital closer to international competitors' financing rates (often state-backed).
Link to India's broader Blue Economy strategy: SAGARMALA Programme (port infrastructure), Coastal Economic Zones, India's 2 million sq km Exclusive Economic Zone, and UNCLOS obligations. A domestic shipbuilding industry supports naval indigenisation goals, reducing dependence on imported warships and patrol vessels.

Prelims MCQ

The Maritime Development Fund approved in September 2025 consists of: (a) Only an investment fund of ₹25,000 crore (b) An investment fund of ₹20,000 crore and an interest incentivisation fund of ₹5,000 crore (c) Shipping infrastructure fund ₹15,000 crore and a startup fund ₹10,000 crore (d) A Green Shipping Fund of ₹25,000 crore

Answer: (b) Investment fund ₹20,000 Cr + Interest incentivisation fund ₹5,000 Cr = total ₹25,000 Cr

📚 Static NCERT Linkage

GS3: Blue Economy, SAGARMALA, Maritime India Vision 2030, India's coastline (7,516 km), major ports, EEZ (2 million sq km), UNCLOS. GS2: India's maritime diplomacy, IORA (Indian Ocean Rim Association), BIMSTEC. PLI scheme comparison for shipbuilding.

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September 2025 — Policy & Legislative Tracker

📌 Draft Bills & Rules Released for Comments

Draft Civil Drone Bill 2025 (Sep 16) — DGCA registration, airspace zones; comments open

7 Draft OSHWC Code Rules (Sep 22) — Dock, Mine, Motor, Plantation, Beedi, Construction, Factory workers; comments by Nov 6, 2025

Draft Telecom User Identification Rules 2025 (Sep 12) — Biometric BIVS; comments by Oct 19, 2025

Draft Indian Statistical Institute Bill 2025 (Sep 25) — replaces ISI Act 1959; Board of Governance; comments by Oct 24, 2025

✅ Cabinet Approvals & Notifications

Critical Minerals Recycling Scheme — ₹1,500 Cr; 6 years; e-waste, Li-ion scrap

Shipbuilding Package — ₹69,725 Cr; MDF, SBFAS, SDS; 30 lakh jobs

Medical College Expansion (Phase 3) — ₹15,035 Cr; 5,023 UG + 5,000 PG seats by 2028-29; ₹1.5 Cr ceiling/seat

Anganwadi-School Co-location Guidelines — two models (physical + mapped); NEP 2020 implementation

💰 RBI & SEBI Updates

SEBI SWAGAT-FI: Unified registration for SWFs, central banks, multilateral agencies; 6-month rollout

SEBI MPO/MPS reform: Large issuers: lowered MPO requirements; MPS compliance: up to 10 years (from 5). 35% retail IPO quota unchanged

SEBI RPT amendments: Material RPT thresholds revised; omnibus approval periods codified

RBI BoP Q1: Released Sep 30; CAD $2.4 bn (0.2% GDP); Capital inflow $7.7 bn; Forex +$4.5 bn

RBI Monetary Policy Framework Review: Discussion paper released; headline vs core target, range vs fixed target examined

🔔 International & Other Developments

India-Israel BIA signed (Sep 8) — Bilateral Investment Agreement; expropriation safeguards, independent arbitration

India-Australia Organic MRA signed (Sep 24) — under ECTA; plant products, processed food, organic wine; mutual certification recognition

Telecom Interception Amendment Rules (Sep 12) — Union Home Secretary can issue cross-territorial state interception orders; nodal officers: 2 → "one or more"

Electricity (Amendment) Rules 2025 (Sep 19) — End-use consumers added as eligible ESS operators; ESS services can be sold to consumers

National Geothermal Energy Policy (Sep 15) — India's first; abandoned wells to plants; single-window; 100% FDI

Rapid Revision — 20 One-Liners · September 2025

0156th GST Council (Sep 3): 4-tier structure → 2-slab (5% + 18%) + 40% demerit rate. All individual life and health insurance policies exempted from GST. Effective Sep 22, 2025.
02GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) operationalised by end of Sep 2025 — established under CGST (Amendment) Act 2023; ends 8-year dispute resolution vacuum at High Courts.
03SC stays Waqf Amendment Act 2025 (Sep 15, CA No. 276/2025): 3 provisions stayed — 5-year Islam practice requirement, govt property inquiry clause, non-Muslim membership beyond 4/22 in Council.
04Draft Civil Drone Bill 2025 (MCA, Sep 16): UAS ≤500 kg; mandatory DGCA registration; 3 airspace zones (Red/Yellow/Green); Motor Accident Tribunal for UAS accident claims.
05National Geothermal Energy Policy (MoNRE, Sep 15): abandoned oil/gas wells → geothermal; single-window; 30-year development leases; concessional loans; 100% FDI; Centres of Excellence.
06Shipbuilding Package ₹69,725 Cr (Cabinet, Sep 24): SBFAS ₹24,736 Cr (till 2036) + MDF ₹25,000 Cr (₹20K+₹5K) + SDS ₹19,989 Cr. Targets: 4.5 mn GT capacity, 30 lakh jobs.
07SEBI SWAGAT-FI (Sep 12): unified single-window registration for central banks, sovereign wealth funds, multilateral agencies, and certain Public Retail Funds. Full implementation within 6 months.
08SEBI MPO/MPS reform: Large company IPOs — lowered MPO requirement. MPS compliance timeline extended from 5 years → 10 years for some large-caps. 35% retail IPO quota unchanged.
09India-Israel BIA signed (Sep 8): Bilateral Investment Agreement (not FTA); covers expropriation safeguards, transparency, free transfers, loss compensation, independent arbitration. I2U2 linkage.
10Critical Minerals Recycling Scheme (Cabinet, Sep 3): ₹1,500 Cr over 6 years; e-waste + Li-ion scrap + EOL vehicle catalysts; 1/3 for startups; 20% capex subsidy; cap ₹50 Cr (large)/₹25 Cr (small).
11RBI BoP Q1 2025-26 (Sep 30): CAD = USD 2.4 bn (0.2% of GDP); vs USD 8.6 bn (0.9%) in Q1 FY25. Capital account = +USD 7.7 bn; Forex reserves = +USD 4.5 bn.
12Draft Telecom User ID Rules 2025 (DoT, Sep 12): Mandatory biometric BIVS; SIM transfer only to blood relatives/legal heirs; Aadhaar auth for new users; comments by Oct 19, 2025.
13Telecom Interception Amendment 2025 (Sep 12): Union Home Secretary can now issue interception orders for cross-territorial requests from state governments. Nodal officers: 2 → "one or more."
14Electricity (Amendment) Rules 2025 (Sep 19): End-use consumers added as eligible ESS owners/operators. ESS owners can now sell storage services directly to consumers (not just utilities/LDC).
15India-Australia Organic MRA (Sep 24): under India-Australia ECTA; covers unprocessed plant products, processed plant food, organic wine; mutual recognition of organic standards and certification.
16Medical College Expansion Phase 3 (Sep 24): ₹15,035 Cr outlay (FY26–29); adds 5,023 UG + 5,000 PG seats; ₹1.5 Cr ceiling per seat; Central share ₹10,303 Cr, State ₹4,731 Cr.
17SC directs Aadhaar as valid voter ID proof in Bihar (Sep 8): Under Section 23(4) of RPA 1950; ECI must accept Aadhaar in Special Intensive Revision; authorities may seek additional verification.
18Draft OSHWC Code Rules (Sep 22): 7 draft rules released for 7 worker categories — Dock, Mine, Motor Transport, Plantation, Beedi, Construction, Factory workers. Comments by November 6, 2025.
19RBI Monetary Policy Framework Review: Discussion paper released; current framework: 4% ± 2% CPI inflation target (2016 onwards); debating headline vs core inflation, fixed vs range targeting. Comments by Sep 18.
20Anganwadi-School Co-location Guidelines (Sep 3): Two models — physical co-location + mapped anganwadi to nearest Grade-1 school. Implements NEP 2020 foundational stage integration. MoE + MoWCD joint release.